Originally Posted by
Kornut213
To the point: on a full range 6x9 speaker the highs mids and lows are all connected in parallel. And its this wiring setup that ultimately determines what the impedance will be, correct?
In other words, If I separated/split the connections of the mids and highs from the bass of 1 speaker into 2 different line inputs, would the over all impedance of the speaker change???
More in detail: This is a personal side project I'm hobby'ing at the moment.... I'm running two 6x9's (4 way, 4ohm, 285watt RMS each) from an after market car stereo rated at 60w x 4 at 4ohms. Connecting them to the rear channels plus the custom enclosure I made for them allows them to sound pretty amazing at low and mid volumes. However at high volumes things start to get distorted very quickly.
So I figured, why not split the highs and mids from the lows into 2 seperate lines.... This way, I could use the front channels of the head unit for the highs and mids and dedicate the rear channels to the lows only.
But now I'm wondering if by having done this, if I have now changed the impedance of each speaker... To like 2ohms.... Which I know would be disastrous for the head unit.
Thanks in advance for any help or tips.